Rapture doctrine invented by Charles Darby:
http://www.bible.ca/rapture-origin-john-nelson-darby-1830ad.htm
Was Matthew 28:19: "In the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost" or "in my name"?
ANOTHER TEST is that of
PRINCIPLE
It is written--
"Whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus" [Colossians 3:17].
Now here is a principle laid down, and the comprehensive word "whatsoever" certainly includes baptism, which is a rite involving both word and deed.
Now of the alternative readings of Matthew 28:19, the threefold name is clearly not in accordance with the above principle. The shorter phrase is. This item of Internal Evidence, therefore, proves which of the two variant readings is the spurious one.
That this is correct, is proved by other Scripture. It was Paul who enunciated the Principle. Did it, in his opinion, include baptism? Ac 19:3-5 supplies the answer. The baptism of John, like the Baptism of Jesus (then and now), was a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. Mk 1:4, Ac 2:38-39. And John preached also the coming of the Messiah who should baptize with the Holy Spirit. The difference between the baptism of John and baptism after Pentecost is that the latter was in the name of JESUS.
NO OTHER DIFFERENCE IS SHOWN IN SCRIPTURE. Now it is written of the disciples at Ephesus that although they had been baptized unto John's baptism, they were later baptized again, in the presence of Paul, but "in the name of the Lord Jesus" [Ac 19:3-5].
This test provides a doubly-strong proof of the authenticity of the phrase "in my name" in Ma. 28:19.
http://jesus-messiah.com/apologetics/catholic/matthew2819.html
An honest look at Matthew 28:19
http://www.focus-search.com/shc/matt2819.html
Preachers who worship other gods
http://www.rense.com/general20/unholy.htm
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